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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers:-

1. Object oriented analysis and design can be handled by the one who knows UML.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : b
Explanation : The Unified Modeling Language includes a set of graphic notation techniques to create visual models of object-oriented software-intensive systems.

2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include

 a) operations only
 b) attributes only
 c) both (a) and (b)
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : In software engineering, a class diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of static structure diagram that describes the structure of a system by showing the system’s classes, their attributes, operations, and the relationships among objects.

3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams.

 a) They can be used to discover parallel activities
 b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
 c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back to object models
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : Activity diagrams are graphical representations of workflows of step wise activities and actions with support for choice, iteration and concurrency.

4. Constraints can be represented in UML by

 a) {text}
 b) [text] c) constraint
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : a
Explanation : Constraints are represented by {text string}.

5. What is an object?

 a) An object is an instance of a class.
 b) An object includes encapsulation of data
 c) An object is not an instance of a class

Answer : a
Explanation : An object is an instance of a class.

6. What is an abstract class?

 a) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
 b) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances.
 c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.

Answer : c
Explanation : An abstract type is a type in a nominative type system which cannot be instantiated directly.

7. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams

 a) Generalization
 b) Include
 c) Extend
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : Generalization, include, extend all of these are valid relationships in use case diagrams.

8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about interaction diagrams?

 a) Interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal with one main design flow and not multiple variants that can happen.
 b) Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all of one use case’s functionality across multiple objects.
 c) Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show iteration and conditional execution for messaging between objects.
 d) All of these

Answer : d
Explanation : Interaction diagram is used to describe some type of interactions among the different elements in the model. So this interaction is a part of dynamic behaviour of the system.

9. UML interfaces are used to:

 a) specify required services for types of objects.
 b) program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk.
 c) define executable logic to reuse across classes.
 d) define an API for all classes.

Answer : a
Explanation : An interface is like a template design for a class that contains no data or implementation; only definitions for methods, properties etc.

10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow indicates:

 a) Navigability
 b) Dependency
 c) Association
 d) Refers to

Answer : a
Explanation : The arrows describe the ways you can navigate.

11. Which of the following is a building block of UML?

 a) Things
 b) Relationships
 c) Diagrams
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : All are the building blocks of UML which are further sub-categorized.

12. Classes and interfaces are a part of

 a) Structural things
 b) Behavioral things
 c) Grouping things
 d) Annotational things

Answer : a
Explanation : Structural things are mostly static parts of a model, representing elements that are either conceptual or physical.

13.What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component?

 a) Use Case
 b) Actor
 c) Interface
 d) Relationship

Answer : c
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

14. What is a physical element that exists at run time in UML?

 a) A node
 b) An interface
 c) An activity
 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
 Explanation:A node represents a computational resource.

15. What can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior?

 a) object
 b) attribute
 c) operation
 d) instance

Answer : c
Explanation : An operation is the implementation of a service that can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior.

16. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models?

 a) Structural things
 b) Behavioral things
 c) Grouping things
 d) Annotational things

Answer : b
Explanation : These are the verbs of a model, representing behavior over time and space.

17. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages?

 a) Activity
 b) Sequence
 c) Collaboration
 d) Class

Answer : b
Explanation : This diagram is a model describing how groups of objects collaborate in some behavior over time.

18. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single use case.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : b
Explanation : Sequence Diagram is responsible for this.

19. If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve concurrent processing, you would use a

 a) Activity diagram
 b) Sequence diagram
 c) Statechart diagram
 d) Object diagram

Answer : c
Explanation : A statechart diagram shows a state machine, consisting of states, transitions, events, and activities.

20. Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements?

 a) Deployment diagram
 b) Component diagram
 c) Node diagram
 d) ER-diagram

Answer : a
Explanation : A Deployment diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements and the software components, processes, and objects.

21. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models?

 a) Structural things
 b) Behavioral things
 c) Grouping things
 d) Annotational things

Answer : d
Explanation : It include a note which is simply a symbol for rendering constraints and comments attached to an element or a collection of elements.

22. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another”?

 a) Association
 b) Aggregation
 c) Realization
 d) Generalization

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

23. What refers to the value associated with a specific attribute of an object and to any actions or side?

 a) Object
 b) State
 c) Interface
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : In a state chart diagram, effects occur when the attribute’s value changes.

24. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?

 a) Collaboration
 b) Use case
 c) State chart
 d) Activity

Answer : b
Explanation : A use case diagrams captures only the functionality of the system whereas a dynamic model/view captures the functions as well as the action.

25. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time?

 a) Sequence Diagram
 b) Collaboration Diagram
 c) Class Diagram
 d) Object Diagram

Answer : d
Explanation : An object diagram focuses on some particular set of object instances and attributes, and the links between the instances. It is a static snapshot of a dynamic view of the system.

26. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for

 a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
 b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
 c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : a
Explanation : Interaction diagram are used to formalize the dynamic behavior of the system.

27. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be present in the system being modeled.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : Since structure diagrams represent the structure they are used extensively in documenting the architecture of software systems 

28. h of the following diagram is time oriented?

 a) Collaboration
 b) Sequence
 c) Activity

Answer : b
Explanation : A sequence diagrams timeline along which tasks are completed

29. How many diagrams are here in Unified Modelling Language?

 a) six
 b) seven
 c) eight
 d) nine

Answer : d
Explanation : The nine UML diagrams include use-case, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, deployment, class, object and component.


30. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed object-oriented design?

 a) Designing system architecture
 b) Developing design models
 c) Specifying interfaces
 d) Developing a debugging system

Answer : d
Explanation : The debugging system is a part of testing phase.

31. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its environment as it is used?

 a) system context model
 b) interaction model
 c) environmental model
 d) both system context and interaction

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

32. Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the system being developed?

 a) system context model
 b) interaction model
 c) environmental model
 d) both system context and interaction

Answer : a
Explanation : The context model of a system may be represented using associations. Associations simply show that there are some relationships between the entities involved in the association.

33. Which of the following come under system control?

 a) Reconfigure
 b) Shutdown
 c) Powersave
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : Functionalities are governed by the system.

34. We use _________ where various parts of system use are identified and analyzed in turn.

 a) tangible entities
 b) scenario-based analysis
 c) design-based analysis
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : Use a scenario-based analysis where various scenarios of system use are identified and analyzed in turn. 

35. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships?

 a) Sequence model
 b) Subsystem model
 c) Dynamic model
 d) Structural model

Answer : d
Explanation : Important relationships that may be documented at this stage are generalization (inheritance) relationships, uses/used-by relationships, and composition relationships.

36. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

 a) Sequence model
 b) Subsystem model
 c) Dynamic model
 d) Both Sequence and Dynamic model

Answer : a
Explanation : Sequence model are represented using a UML sequence or a collaboration diagram and are dynamic models

37. If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message?

 a) restart()
 b) reconfigure()
 c) powerSave()
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : A restart() message causes a transition to normal operation. Both the powerSave() and reconfigure() messages cause a transition to a state in which the system reconfigures itself.

38. Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before returning to the Running state?

 a) signalStatus()
 b) remoteControl()
 c) reconfigure()
 d) reportStatus()

Answer : d
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

39. Open source development involves making the source code of a system publicly available.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : This means that many people can propose changes and improvements to the software.


40. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in the analysis model?

 a) describing the customer complaints
 b) establishing a basis for the creation of a software design
 c) defining a set of requirements that can be validated once the software is built
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : All the options are covered in analysis model. 

41. A description of each function presented in the DFD is contained in a ________.

 a) data flow
 b) process specification
 c) control specification
 d) data store

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

42. Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the system as a consequence of external events?

 a) data flow diagram
 b) state transition diagram
 c) control specification diagram
 d) workflow diagram

Answer : b
Explanation : The state transition diagram represents the various modes of behavior (called states) of the system and the manner in which transitions are made from state to state.

43. A data model contains

 a) data object
 b) attributes
 c) relationships
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : The data model consists of three interrelated pieces of information: the data object,
         the attributes that describe the data object, and the relationships that connect data objects to one another.

44. _________ defines the properties of a data object and take on one of the three different characteristics.

 a) data object
 b) attributes
 c) relationships
 d) data object and attributes

Answer : b
 Explanation : They can be used to name an instance of the data object, describe the instance, or make reference to another instance in another table.

45. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if there is no explicit need for the relationship to occur or the relationship is optional.

 a) modality
 b) cardinality
 c) entity
 d) structured analysis

Answer : a
Explanation : The modality is 1 if an occurrence of the relationship is mandatory, else 0 for optional relationship.

46. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

 a) data flow diagram
 b) state transition diagram
 c) control specification
 d) workflow diagram

Answer : b
Explanation : The basic form of a data flow diagram, also known as a data flow graph or a bubble chart.

47. A data condition occurs whenever a data is passed to an input element followed by a processing element and the result in control output.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer :  a
Explanation : Standard flow of condition check. 

48. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information domain and functional domain at the same time

 a) data flow diagram
 b) state transition diagram
 c) control specification
 d) activity diagram

Answer : a
Explanation : As the DFD is refined into greater levels of detail, the analyst performs an implicit functional decomposition of the system,
                thereby accomplishing the fourth operational analysis principle for function.

49. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of behavior.

 a) data flow diagram
 b) state transition diagram
 c) control specification
 d) workflow diagram

Answer : c
Explanation : The control specification(CSPEC) describes the behavior of the system, but it gives us no information about
                the inner working of the processes that are activated as a result of this behavior .

50. Which of the following is not a construct?

 a) sequence
 b) condition
 c) repetition
 d) selection

Answer : d
Explanation : Sequence implements processing steps that are essential in the specification of any algorithm.
                Condition provides the facility for selected processing based on some logical occurrence, and repetition allows for looping. 

51. Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table?

 a) List all actions that can be associated with a specific procedure
 b) List all conditions during execution of the procedure.
 c) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions.
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : A decision table includes action stub and a condition stub with a set of rules.

52. _________ is a pidgin(simplified version of a language that develops as a means of communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common)
 
 a) program design language
 b) structured English
 c) pseudocode
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : The difference between PDL and a real programming language lies in the use of narrative text embedded directly within PDL statements.

53. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The ability to represent local and global data is an essential element of component-level design.”?

 a) Data representation
 b) Logic verification
 c) “Code-to” ability
 d) Automatic processing

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

54. A software component

 a) Implements some functionality
 b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces
 c) Communicates through its interfaces only
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : All the options identify with features of a software component.

55. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that would not allow violation of the structured constructs?

 a) State transition diagram
 b) Box diagram
 c) ER diagram
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : None.

56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the condition fails.

 a) repeat until
 b) condition
 c) do while tests
 d) if then-else

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

57. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box diagram?

 a) functional domain
 b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
 c) recursion is easy to represent
 d) providing a notation that translates actions and conditions

Answer : d
Explanation : This functionality is covered by UML diagrams. 

58. The________ is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.

 a) Repetition
 b) Sequence
 c) Condition
 d) None of the above

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

59. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “Notation that can be input directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.”?

 a) Machine readability
 b) Maintainability
 c) Structure enforcement
 d) Overall simplicity

Answer : a
Explanation : Readability is processing input.


60. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

 a) Place the user in control
 b) Reduce the user’s memory load
 c) Make the interface consistent
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : These golden rules actually form the basis for a set of user interface design principles that guide this important software design activity. 

61. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

 a) Provide for flexible interaction
 b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
 c) Show technical internals from the casual user
 d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Answer : c
Explanation : The user interface should move the user into the virtual world of the application.

62. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

 a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
 b) Interface design
 c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
 d) Interface validation

Answer : c
Explanation : These are the end user for whom the product is being built.

63. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant.

 a) short-term memory
 b) shortcuts
 c) objects that appear on the screen
 d) all of the mentioned

Answer : a
Explanation : The interface should be designed to reduce the requirement to remember past actions and results.

64. Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?

 a) the design of interfaces between software components
 b) the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information
 c) the design of the interface between two computers
 d) all of the mentioned

Answer : c
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory

65. A software might allow a user to interact via

 a) keyboard commands
 b) mouse movement
 c) voice recognition commands
 d) all of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : All the mentioned input mediums are available today.

66. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on predefined design principles.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : The statement is true.

67. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?

 a) design model
 b) user’s model
 c) mental image
 d) system image

Answer : a
Explanation : The requirements specification may establish certain constraints that help to define the user of the system,
                but the interface design is often only incidental to the design model. 

68. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

 a) design model
 b) user’s model
 c) mental image
 d) system image

Answer : b
Explanation : To build an effective user interface, all design should begin with an understanding of the intended users,
                including their profiles of their age, physical abilities, education, etc.

69. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

 a) mental image
 b) interface design
 c) system image
 d) interface validation

Answer : c
Explanation : When the system image and the system perception are coincident, users generally feel comfortable with the software and use it effectively.


70. What do you understand by V&V in software testing?

 a) Verified Version
 b) Version Validation
 c) Verification and Validation
 d) Version Verification

Answer : c
Explanation : V&V generally refers to any activity that attempts to ensure that the software will function as required.

71. In static test techniques, behavioral and performance properties of the program are observed.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : b
Explanation : Static Analysis Techniques are based solely on the (manual or automated) examination of project documentation of software models and code.

72. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

 a) Unit Testing
 b) Integration Testing
 c) Acceptance Testing
 d) Regression Testing

Answer : b
Explanation : Integration testing is the phase in software testing in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group.

73. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modification, in order to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults?

 a) Regression Test
 b) Smoke Test
 c) Alpha Test
 d) Beta Test

Answer : a
Explanation : Regression test seeks to uncover new software bugs in existing functional and non-functional areas of a system after changes have been made to them.

74. Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?

 a) All Statements Coverage
 b) Control Structure Coverage
 c) Cause-Effect Graphs
 d) All Paths Coverage

Answer : c
Explanation : Rest are test strategies of white box testing.

75. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a

 a) Test plan
 b) Test case
 c) Test document
 d) Test Suite

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

76. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its valid range?

 a) Boundary value testing
 b) Equivalence class partitioning
 c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning
 d) Decision tables

Answer : a
Explanation : Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values.

77. A white box test scales up well at different granularity levels of testing.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : b
Explanation : A white box test is mostly applicable at unit and integration testing level.

78. When does the testing process stops?

 a) When resources (time and budget) are over
 b) When some coverage is reached
 c) When quality criterion is reached
 d) Testing never ends.

Answer : c
Explanation : As software testing is an exhaustive process, when the quality assurance is established and the product is ready to be delivered, testing is stopped.

79. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

 a) Test Plan
 b) Test Design Specification
 c) Test Case Specification
 d) Test Log

Answer : d
Explanation : Test log is a part of testing result document.

80. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as

 a) Test case generation
 b) Test case design
 c) ALL of the mentioned
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : c
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

81. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of architectural design.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : b
Explanation : They are a part of requirements engineering, while integration & unit test planning come under architectural design.

82. PRD stands for

 a) Product Requirement Document
 b) Project Requirement Document
 c) Product Restrictions Document
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : a
Explanation : A product requirements document (PRD) is a document written by a company that defines a product they are making,
                or the requirements for one or more new features for an existing product.


83. Reuse-based software engineering is a software engineering strategy where the development process is geared to reusing existing software.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

84. The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at

 a) free of cost
 b) low cost
 c) high cost
 d) short period of time

Answer : b
Explanation : The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at low cost.
              This may be in the form of program libraries or entire applications.

85. Consider the example and categorize it accordingly, “A pattern-matching system developed as part of a text-processing system may be 
    reused in a database management system”.

 a) Application system reuse
 b) Component reuse
 c) Object and function reuse
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : Components of an application, ranging in size from subsystems to single objects, may be reused.

86. COTS stands for

 a) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems
 b) Commercial Off-The-Shelf states
 c) Commercial Off-The-System state
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

87. COTS product reuse means

 a) Class and function libraries that implement commonly used abstractions are available for reuse.
 b) Shared components are woven into an application at different places when the program is compiled.
 c) Large-scale systems that encapsulate generic business functionality and rules are configured for an organization.
 d) Systems are developed by configuring and integrating existing application systems.

Answer : d
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

88. .NET are specific to which platform?

 a) Java
 b) Mac-OS
 c) Microsoft
 d) LINUX

Answer : c
Explanation : NET Framework (pronounced dot net) is a software framework developed by Microsoft that runs primarily on Microsoft Windows.

89. Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific subsystem or application?

 a) Software reuse
 b) Object-oriented programming language
 c) Framework
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : c
Explanation : Frameworks are implemented as a collection of concrete and abstract object classes in an object-oriented programming language.

90. “An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in one company and a distributed process in another.” Which category the example belong to?

 a) Process specialization
 b) Platform specialization
 c) Environment specialization
 d) Functional specialization

Answer : a
Explanation : In process specialization, the system is adapted to cope with specific business processes.

91. What are generic application systems that may be designed to support a particular business type, activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise?

 a) COTS-solution systems
 b) COTS-integrated systems
 c) ERP systems
 d) Both COTS-solution and COTS-integrated systems

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory 

92. Which of the following is not an advantages of software reuse?

 a) lower costs
 b) faster software development
 c) high effectiveness
 d) lower risks

Answer : c
Explanation : Effectiveness depends on how one reuses the existing product.

93. ERP stands for

 a) Effective Reuse Planning
 b) Enterprise Resource Planning
 c) Effective Research Planning
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : Enterprise Resource Planning systems are examples of large-scale COTS reuse.

94. Which framework class include standards and classes that support component communication and information exchange?

 a) System infrastructure frameworks
 b) Middleware integration frameworks
 c) Enterprise application frameworks
 d) MVC

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

95. Which of the following option is not provided by formal methods?

 a) providing frameworks
 b) verifying systems
 c) provide investors
 d) both providing frameworks and verifying systems

Answer : d
Explanation : A method is formal if it has a sound mathematical basis, typically given by a formal specification language.

96. ___________ are statements that can be interpreted in a number of ways.

 a) Contradictions
 b) Ambiguities
 c) Vagueness
 d) Comments

Answer : a
Explanation : As the name indicates, these statements may be interpreted differently as per user.

97. What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid?

 a) Contradictions
 b) Post-condition
 c) Vagueness
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : A precondition defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid.

98. Which of the following is a way of making a statement about the elements of a set that is true for every member of the set?

 a) Set
 b) Sequence
 c) Universal quantification
 d) both Set and Sequence

Answer : c
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

99. Which of the following occurs often due to the bulkiness of a system specification document?

 a) Contradictions
 b) Ambiguities
 c) Vagueness
 d) Incompleteness

Answer : c
Explanation : Achieving a high level of precision consistently is an almost impossible task.

100. The _________ of a formal specification language is often based on a syntax that is derived from standard set theory notation and predicate calculus.

 a) semantic domain
 b) syntactic domain
 c) sequence
 d) set

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory

101. Which of the following provides a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for documenting system requirements?

 a) CMM
 b) ISO-9001
 c) CASE tools
 d) Formal methods

Answer : d
Explanation : Formal methods provide a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for documenting system requirements.

102. The ____________ of a specification language indicates how the language represents system requirements.

 a) semantic domain
 b) syntactic domain
 c) sequence
 d) set

Answer : a
Explanation : For example, a programming language has a set of formal semantics that enables the software developer to specify algorithms that
              transform input to output.

103. Which of the following is essential for success, when formal methods are used for the first time?

 a) Expert training
 b) Consulting
 c) Pre-requisite knowledge
 d) Both Expert training and Consulting
 e) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : The answer is self-explanatory.

104. It is generally not necessary to apply formal methods to every aspect of a major system.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : Those components that are safety critical are first choices, followed by components whose failure cannot be tolerated.

105. What are the problems with re-structuring?

 a) Loss of comments
 b) Loss of documentation
 c) Heavy computational demands
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : Restructuring doesn’t help with poor modularisation where related components are dispersed throughout the code.

106. Which of the following is not a module type?

 a) Object modules
 b) Hardware modules
 c) Functional modules
 d) Process support modules

Answer : a
Explanation : Except option a all other are module types.

107. Reverse engineering of data focuses on
 a) Internal data structures
 b) Database structures
 c) ALL of the mentioned
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : c
Explanation : None

108. Forward engineering is not necessary if an existing software product is producing the correct output.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : b
Explanation : Forward engineering refers to taking a high-level model and using it to build a more complex lower-level implementation.

109. Which of the following is not an example of a business process?

 a) designing a new product
 b) hiring an employee
 c) purchasing services
 d) testing software

Answer : d
Explanation : It is a part of development phase.

110. Which of the following is a data problem?

 a) hardware problem
 b) record organisation problems
 c) heavy computational demands
 d) loss of comments

Answer : b
Explanation : Records representing the same entity may be organised differently in different programs.

111. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?

 a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
 b) when system crashes frequently
 c) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete
 d) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Answer : c
Explanation : Re-engineering involves putting in the effort to make the system easier to maintain.

112. Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ?

 a) Cost reduction
 b) Time reduction
 c) Maintainability
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : No such goal is mentioned which is not a business goal, so option d is correct here.

113. Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured?

 a) Higher quality programs
 b) Reduced maintenance effort
 c) Software easier to test
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

114. Data re-engineering may be part of the process of migrating from a file-based system to a DBMS-based system or changing from one DBMS to another.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : Data re-engineering involves analyzing and reorganizing the data structures in a program.

115. BPR stands for

 a) Business process re-engineering
 b) Business product re-engineering
 c) Business process requirements

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

116. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique?

 a) Data re-engineering
 b) Re-factoring
 c) Restructuring
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : c
Explanation : Restructuring involves automatic conversion from unstructured to structured code.

117. What type of fault remains in the system for some period and then disappears?

 a) Permanent
 b) Transient
 c) Intermittent

Answer : b
Explanation : For example many faults in communication systems are transient in nature.

118. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?

 a) Fault prevention
 b) Fault removal
 c) Fault tolerance
 d) All of the mentioned

Answer : d
Explanation : All the options lead to formation of a reliable system.

119. A system maintaining its integrity while accepting a temporary halt in its operation is said to be in a state of

 a) Full Fault Tolerance
 b) Graceful Degradation
 c) Fail Soft
 d) Fail Safe

Answer : d
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

120. Which of the following Error Detection checks is not a part of Application detection?

 a) Hardware checks
 b) Timing checks
 c) Reversal checks
 d) Coding checks

Answer : a
Explanation : Hardware is a part of environment detection check.

121. Exception handling is a type of

 a) forward error recovery mechanism
 b) backward error recovery mechanism

Answer : a
Explanation : Exception handling is a forward error recovery mechanism, as there is no roll back to a previous state;
        instead control is passed to the handler so that recovery procedures can be initiated.

122. Non-occurrence of improper alteration of information is known as

 a) Available Dependability
 b) Confidential Dependability
 c) Maintainable Dependability
 d) Integral Dependability

Answer : d
Explanation : Integrity is to keep the original content safe from alteration.


123. In N-version programming which is the independent generation of N, the value of N is

 a) greater than 1
 b) less than 1
 c) greater than 2
 d) less than 2

Answer : c
Explanation : N-version programming (NVP), also known as multiversion programming or multiple-version dissimilar software, is a method or process
              in software engineering where multiple functionally equivalent programs are independently generated from the same initial pecifications.

124. In Log-based fault tolerance, logs of undetermined events are saved and replayed on failure.

 a) True
 b) False

Answer : a
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

125. All fault-tolerant techniques rely on

 a) Integrity
 b) Dependability
 c) Redundancy

Answer : c
Explanation : All fault-tolerant techniques rely on extra elements introduced into the system to detect & recover from faults.

126. It is imperative for a communicating processes to reach consistent recovery points to avoid the _________ effect, with backward error recovery mechanism.

 a) Static
 b) Dynamic
 c) Domino
 d) Whirlpool

Answer : c
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

127. Which of the following is not a phase of “bath tub curve” of hardware reliability?

 a) Useful Life
 b) Burn-in
 c) Wear-out
 d) Time

Answer : d
Explanation : Time is the horizontal dimension on which the bath tub curve is built and not the phase.

128. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

 a) direct relation
 b) inverse relation
 c) no relation

Answer : b
Explanation : As the reliability increases, failure intensity decreases.

129. How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?

 a) 2
 b) 3
 c) 11
 d) 8

Answer : b
Explanation : McCall quality model has three product quality factors namely: Product revision, Product operation, Product Transition .

130. Which one of the following is not a software quality model?

 a) ISO 9000
 b) McCall model
 c) Boehm model
 d) ISO 9126

Answer : a
Explanation : ISO-9000 series of standards is a set of document dealing with quality systems that can be used for quality assurance purposes.

131. What is MTTF ?

 a) Maximum time to failure
 b) Mean time to failure
 c) Minimum time to failure
 d) None of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

132. How is software reliability defined?

 a) time
 b) efficiency
 c) quality
 d) speed

Answer : a
Explanation : Software Reliability mainly concerned with the time component. It can be seen in various models like Basic Execution Time Model and
                Logarithmic Poisson Execution Time Model.

133. Suitability, Accuracy, Interpolability and security are what type quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?

 a) Reliability
 b) Efficiency
 c) Functionality
 d) Usability

Answer : c
Explanation: All the Characteristics mentioned in the question are related to achievement of the basic purpose for which the software is being engineered,
        which is functionality.

134. Time Behavior and Resource Behavior fall under which quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?

 a) Reliability
 b) Efficiency
 c) Functionality
 d) Usability

Answer : b
Explanation : The Characteristics mentioned in the question are related to the relationship between the level of performance of the software and the amount of resources used, under stated conditions. 

135. NHPP stands for

 a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
 b) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
 c) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
 d) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Answer : d
Explanation : The answer is self explanatory.

136. The CMM model is a technique to

 a) automatically maintain the software reliability
 b) improve the software process.
 c) test the software
 d) all of the mentioned

Answer : b
Explanation : Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a strategy for improving the software process, irrespective of the actual life cycle model used.































Artificial Intelligence Questions and Answers – Neural Networks – 1 


  

This set of Artificial Intelligence MCQs focuses on “Neural Networks – 1”. 

1. A 3-input neuron is trained to output a zero when the input is 110 and a one when the input is 111. After generalization, the output will be zero when and only when the input is:
 a) 000 or 110 or 011 or 101
 b) 010 or 100 or 110 or 101
 c) 000 or 010 or 110 or 100
 d) 100 or 111 or 101 or 001
View Answer

Answer: c
 Explanation: The truth table before generalization is:
 Inputs Output
 000 $
 001 $
 010 $
 011 $
 100 $
 101 $
 110 0
 111 1
 where $ represents don’t know cases and the output is random.
 After generalization, the truth table becomes:
 Inputs Output
 000 0
 001 1
 010 0
 011 1
 100 0
 101 1
 110 0
 111 1
 .

2. A perceptron is:
 a) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing
 b) an auto-associative neural network
 c) a double layer auto-associative neural network
 d) a neural network that contains feedback
View Answer

Answer: a
 Explanation: The perceptron is a single layer feed-forward neural network. It is not an auto-associative network because it has no feedback and is not a multiple layer neural network because the pre-processing stage is not made of neurons. 

3. An auto-associative network is:
 a) a neural network that contains no loops
 b) a neural network that contains feedback
 c) a neural network that has only one loop
 d) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing
View Answer

Answer: b
 Explanation: An auto-associative network is equivalent to a neural network that contains feedback. The number of feedback paths(loops) does not have to be one. 

4. A 4-input neuron has weights 1, 2, 3 and 4. The transfer function is linear with the constant of proportionality being equal to 2. The inputs are 4, 10, 5 and 20 respectively. The output will be:
 a) 238
 b) 76
 c) 119
 d) 123
View Answer

Answer: a
 Explanation: The output is found by multiplying the weights with their respective inputs, summing the results and multiplying with the transfer function. Therefore:
 Output = 2 * (1*4 + 2*10 + 3*5 + 4*20) = 238. 

5. Which of the following is true?
 (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers.
 (ii) Neural networks learn by example.
 (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works.
 a) All of the mentioned are true
 b) (ii) and (iii) are true
 c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
 Explanation: Neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers because a lot of the operation is done in parallel. That is not the case when the neural network is simulated on a computer. The idea behind neural nets is based on the way the human brain works. Neural nets cannot be programmed, they cam only learn by examples. 

6. Which of the following is true for neural networks?
 (i) The training time depends on the size of the network.
 (ii) Neural networks can be simulated on a conventional computer.
 (iii) Artificial neurons are identical in operation to biological ones.
 a) All of the mentioned
 b) (ii) is true
 c) (i) and (ii) are true
 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
 Explanation: The training time depends on the size of the network; the number of neuron is greater and therefore the number of possible ‘states’ is increased. Neural networks can be simulated on a conventional computer but the main advantage of neural networks – parallel execution – is lost. Artificial neurons are not identical in operation to the biological ones. 

7. What are the advantages of neural networks over conventional computers?
 (i) They have the ability to learn by example
 (ii) They are more fault tolerant
 (iii)They are more suited for real time operation due to their high ‘computational’ rates
 a) (i) and (ii) are true
 b) (i) and (iii) are true
 c) Only (i)
 d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
 Explanation: Neural networks learn by example. They are more fault tolerant because they are always able to respond and small changes in input do not normally cause a change in output. Because of their parallel architecture, high computational rates are achieved. 

8. Which of the following is true?
 Single layer associative neural networks do not have the ability to:
 (i) perform pattern recognition
 (ii) find the parity of a picture
 (iii)determine whether two or more shapes in a picture are connected or not
 a) (ii) and (iii) are true
 b) (ii) is true
 c) All of the mentioned
 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
 Explanation: Pattern recognition is what single layer neural networks are best at but they don’t have the ability to find the parity of a picture or to determine whether two shapes are connected or not. 

9. Which is true for neural networks?
 a) It has set of nodes and connections
 b) Each node computes it’s weighted input
 c) Node could be in excited state or non-excited state
 d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
 Explanation: All mentioned are the characteristics of neural network. 

10. Neuro software is:
 a) A software used to analyze neurons
 b) It is powerful and easy neural network
 c) Designed to aid experts in real world
 d) It is software used by Neuro surgeon
View Answer

Answer: b
 Explanation: None. 

1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
 a) Analysis
 b) Design
 c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
 d) Development and Documentation
View Answer

Answer:c
 Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
 a) Program flowchart
 b) Structure chart
 c) Data-flow diagram
 d) Module
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
 a) Sequential structure
 b) A List
 c) A plan
 d) An Algorithm
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
 a) documentation
 b) flowchart
 c) program specification
 d) design
View Answer

Answer:c
 Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.

5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
 a) Maintenance and Evaluation
 b) Design
 c) Analysis
 d) Development and Documentation
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.

6. Who designs and implement database structures.
 a) Programmers
 b) Project managers
 c) Technical writers
 d) Database administrators
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
 a) Project design
 b) Installation
 c) Systems analysis
 d) Programming
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

8. Debugging is:
 a) creating program code.
 b finding and correcting errors in the program code.
 c) identifying the task to be computerized.
 d) creating the algorithm.
View Answer

Answer:
 Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.

9. In Desigin phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
 a) Architecture
 b) Data
 c) Interface
 d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
 a) Efficiency
 b) Accuracy
 c) Quality
 d) Complexity
View Answer

Answer:c
 Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.

11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
 a) can be written more compactly.
 b) focuses on just one thing.
 c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
 d) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.

12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
 a) can be written more compactly.
 b) focuses on just one thing.
 c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
 d) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence


1. “Robustness” answers which of the following description?
 a) CASE tools be used to support the process activities
 b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
 c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
 d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.

2. Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems.
 a) True
 b) False
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation:The definition is of a system development process.

3. “Understandability” answers which of the following description?
 a) The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
 b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
 c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software product
 d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
View Answer

Answer:a
 Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.

4. How many stages are there in process improvement?
 a) three
 b) four
 c) five
 d) six
View Answer

Answer:a
 Explanation:Process measurement, analysis and change are the three stages.

5. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?
 a) Process measurement
 b) Process analysis
 c) Process change
 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation:In Process analysis the current process is assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified.

6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?
 a) Informal
 b) Managed
 c) Methodical
 d) Supported
View Answer

Answer:a
 Explanation:Here the development team chose their own way of working.

7. The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called
 a) Process metric
 b) Process analysis
 c) Process modelling
 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:c
 Explanation:Process models may be presented from different perspectives.

8. It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.
 a) True
 b) False
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation:It is always best to start process analysis with an existing model. People then may extend and change this.

9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?
 a) Deliverable
 b) Activity
 c) Condition
View Answer

Answer:a
 Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.

10. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?
 a)  Role
 b) Exception
 c) Activity
 d) Process
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation:Exceptions are often undefined and it is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers to handle the exception.

11. Which of the following is not a part of process change?
 a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes
 b) Introducing new team members to existing project
 c) Introducing or removing deliverable
 d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation:Adding more developers aid to process completion rather than changing it.

12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.
 a) True
 b) False
View Answer

Answer:b
 Explanation:The CMM is discrete rather than continuous.

13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x?
 a) 0
 b) 2
 c) 4
 d) 6
View Answer

Answer:d
 Explanation:Not performed, performed, managed, defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are the six points.